In the Parshas HaMan, it mentions that G-d will give them basar in the evening, and lechem in the morning. Then in the next posuk it identifies that the basar being referred to is the slav.
I imagined that just like they had the Man (the manna) the whole 40 years, they also had the slav the whole 40 years. If so, what was the unmanageable taiyva that the ha’safsuf had over there in Parshas Behaaloscha which was answered by slav, if they had the slav all along?
I asked around, and people told me that it’s all one parsha, that what the Torah relates in Parshas Behaaloscha actually happened before Matan Torah.
I looked into it, and I discovered not at all that way.
There is a dispute between the Ramban and the Chizkuni on the spot.
The Ramban writes that according to Chazal, Klal Yisroel in the midbar had slav the whole time. And that the Torah doesn’t talk about it because the Man was miraculous, but the slav happened within the rules of “nature”.
Answers the Ramban the unasked question, if so what was the second parsha of the slav over there in Parshas Behaaloscha? And he writes that here the slav was given only to eat and not for satiation (see Rashi), and over there they wanted to eat meat to satiation. See Tehillim 78, verses 25 and 29. Or that the slav over here was only given to the elders or to the important people, and the younger ones saw this and they wanted it also.
But, be that as it may, the Ramban learns that the event in Parshas Behaaloscha was a different event than what happened over here in Parshas Beshalach.
The Chizkuni writes that the slav mentioned over here was given only for that specific period of time, and afterwards it ceased. And that’s why over there in Parshas Behaaloscha, they desired it again.
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